# Practise multiple-choice questions

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Sample examination 2, Paper 2

Operating practices, procedures and theory

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1. Before making a CQ call:

(a) listen on the frequency before commencing

(b) send a series of V's in morse

(c) send a 1750Hz tone

(d) keep giving your callsign

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2. To access a repeater in the UK one must:

(a) send the callsign of the repeater in ASCII

(b) send a 1750Hz tone burst

(c) send a 1850Hz tone burst

(d) speak the callsign of the repeater

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3. If a station asks 'please QSY, this means:

(a) there is fading

(b) change frequency

(c) stop transmitting

(d) reply in morse

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4. The only general call allowed from an amateur station is:

(a) a news bulletin

(b) a CQ call

(c) a third-party call

(d) on VHF

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5. When working through a satellite use:

(a) as much power as possible

(b) Esperanto

(c) sufficient power to maintain reliable communications

(d) FM only

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6. For safety reasons all exposed metal work in an amateur station should be:

(a) connected to mains neutral

(b) free of earth connections

(c) left completely floating

(d) connected to a good RF earth

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7. If a readability report of R2 is given, this would indicate:

(a) unreadable

(b) only readable with considerable difficulty

(c) readable with practically no difficulty

(d) perfectly readable

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8. When wearing headphones it is not advisable to:

(a) be calling CQ

(b) have one's hands inside live equipment

(c) be switching off

(d) have rubber gloves on

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9. Which of the following uses the International Phonetic Alphabet?

(a) Boston, Uruguay, Gordon

(b) Belgium, Units, Gravity

(c) Bee, You, Gee

(d) Bravo, Uniform, Golf

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10. A light bulb is rated at 12V, 3W. The current drawn when used on a 12V source is:

(a) 250mA

(b) 750mA

(c) 4A

(d) 36A

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11. The tolerance of a resistor is given as 10%. If the nominal value is 4700W, then its value must lie between:

(a) 4230 and 5170W

(b) 4653 and 4747W

(c) 4230 and 4747W

(d) 4653 and 5170W

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12. The total capacitance of the following circuit is:

(a) 1.33mF

(b) 3mF

(c) 3.5mF

(d) 6mF

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13 The following impedance-frequency curve represents

(a) a capacitance

(b) a parallel tuned circuit

(c) an inductance

(d) a series-tuned circuit

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14. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit is 1MHz and the bandwidth at the -3dB points is 10kHz. The Q factor of the circuit is:

(a) 50

(b) 100

(c) 500

(d) 1000

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15. The impedance seen at terminals AB in the following diagram is:

(a) 0W

(b) 250W

(c) 1000W

(d) 4000W

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16. There are two basic forms of transistor, these are:

(a) PNP and NNP

(b) PNP and NPN

(c) PPN and NNP

(d) NPP and PNN

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17. A varactor diode acts like:

(a) a variable resistance

(b) a variable voltage regulator

(c) a variable capacitance

(d) a variable inductance

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18. The following circuit is for:

(a) half-wave rectification

(b) full-wave voltage stabilisation

(c) reverse bias protection

(d) voltage multiplication

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19. Colpitts, Hartley, Clapp-Gouriet and Vackar are all types of:

(a) power supply

(b) amplifier

(c) oscillator

(d) modulator

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20. For a transistor to conduct:

(a) the base must be 0.6V above the emitter

(b) the base must be soldered to the emitter

(c) the collector must be soldered to the emitter

(d) the base lead must be removed

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21. A Class C amplifier conducts over:

(a) the complete cycle

(b) three-quarters of a cycle

(c) exactly half a cycle

(d) less than half a cycle

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22. The input resistance of a common-emitter amplifier stage is in the region of:

(a) 50W

(b) 250W

(c) 2kW

(d) 20kW

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23. The main filtering of the wanted signal in a superheterodyne receiver is normally accomplished in:

(a) the RF amplifier

(b) the audio circuitry

(c) the second mixer

(d) the IF section

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24. A receiver is quoted as having a sensitivity of 0.5mV for 20dB S/N ratio. The latter refers to a comparison between:

(a) the unwanted signal and wanted noise

(b) the wanted signal and unwanted noise

(c) the unwanted signal and unwanted noise

(d) the wanted signal and wanted noise

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25. The circuit shown below is that of:

(a) an envelope detector

(b) a single-phase mains rectifier

(c) a discriminator

(d) a phase detector

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26. In the detection of SSB signals there is normally a carrier insertion oscillator. In a high-quality receiver this is:

(a) a VFO

(b) varactor controlled

(c) inductor controlled

(d) crystal controlled

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27. One advantage of FM over AM is:

(a) increased distance range

(b) narrower bandwidth required

(c) freedom from most sources of 'man-made' interference

(d) no antenna is needed

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28. For CW reception, the difference in frequency of the BFO and final IF should be about:

(a) 1kHz

(b) 10kHz

(c) 455kHz

(d) 10.7MHz

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29. In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the modulating signal manifests itself as:

(a) amplitude variations of the carrier

(b) envelope variations of the carrier

(c) deviation from average carrier frequency

(d) a constant carrier offset

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30. The frequency of a VFO depends on an L-C circuit. The frequency is determined by:

(a) the difference between L and C

(b) the sum of L and C

(c) the ratio L/C

(d) the product of L and C

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31. The following spectrum plot is typical of:

(a) amplitude modulation

(b) amplitude modulation, suppressed carrier

(c) single sideband, reduced carrier

(d) single sideband, full carrier

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32. The following is part of a transmitter. It is typical of..

(a) an RF filter

(b) a deviation control

(c) an amplitude modulator

(d) an SSB generator

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33. A VFO should ideally be followed by:

(a) a buffer amplifier

(b) a power amplifier

(c) a Class C amplifier

(d) a notch filter

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34. Which of the following represents 100% amplitude modulation?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

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35. The advantage of J3E transmission is:

(a) power output minimised with modulation

(b) power output maximised with no modulation

(c) minimum power dissipation in PA with no modulation

(d) maximum power dissipation in PA with no modulation

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36. The circuit below represents a:

(a) frequency modulator

(b) amplitude modulator

(c) phase modulator

(d) amplitude demodulator

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37. In the diagram of question 36, components L1, L2, C1 and C2 provide:

(a) harmonic suppression and impedance matching

(b) harmonic suppression only

(c) output matching only

(d) audio filtering

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38. In electromagnetic radiation, which of the following is true ?

(a) E and H are at 180° to each other

(b) E, H and the direction of propagation are all at right angles to each other

(c) the angle between E and H is 0°

(d) the velocity of propagation is at 180° to the E field but in line with the H field

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39. The major mode of propagation up to about 2MHz is by:

(a) direct wave

(b) tropospheric wave

(c) ionospheric wave

(d) ground wave

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40. The skip zone is where the ground wave:

(a) is enhanced

(b) is reflected

(c) has diminished and the reflected wave has not returned to earth

(d) ground and reflected wave combine

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41. Refraction of an electromagnetic wave is:

(a) the same as reflection

(b) the bending of its path

(c) absorption by the ionosphere

(d) bouncing from a stellar object

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42. The MUF for a given radio path is:

(a) the mean of the maximum and minimum usable frequencies

(b) the maximum usable frequency

(c) the minimum usable frequency

(d) the mandatory usable frequency

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43. A 10cm wavelength in air corresponds to:

(a) 3MHz

(b) 300MHz

(c) 3GHz

(d) 30GHz

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44. If two signals arrive at a point out of phase:

(a) fading will occur

(b) signal enhancement occurs

(c) cross-polarisation is produced

(d) the antenna impedance varies

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45. Inserting traps into each leg of a dipole:

(a) allows it to only operate on one band

(b) eliminates harmonics

(c) gives broad-band matching

(d) allows it to resonate on at least two bands

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46. What is the length of a piece of coaxial cable cut for a full wavelength at 100MHz, if the velocity factor is 0.66?

(a) 0.198m

(b) 1.98m

(c) 3 m

(d) 19m

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47. A moving-coil meter depends on which of the following in order to operate?

(a) interaction of an electric and magnetic field

(b) interaction of a permanent and electromagnetic field

(c) the interaction of two permanent magnetic fields

(d) an electric field only

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48. Which of the following items could be attached to a moving-coil meter in an attempt to measure power?

(a) a resistor

(b) a thermistor

(c) a thermocouple

(d) a therm

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49. An SWR meter is inserted into a perfectly matched transmitter/antenna system. The value shown should indicate:

(a) 10W reflected power

(b) 1:1 SWR

(c) 1:0 SWR

(d) 0:1 SWR

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50. Which of the instruments below has the highest accuracy?

(a) a heterodyne wavemeter

(b) a digital frequency counter

(c) an absorption wavemeter

(d) an oscilloscope

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51. To check that a crystal is working on its correct overtone, the simplest piece of equipment necessary is:

(a) a voltmeter

(b) an ammeter

(c) an absorption wavemeter

(d) a dip oscillator

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52. The trace below is on an oscilloscope monitoring an AM transmission. The depth of modulation is:

(a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 60%

(d) 70%

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53. A good dummy load is constructed from:

(a) light bulbs

(b) a column of water

(c) wire-wound resistors

(d) non-reactive resistors

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54. The typical accuracy of a dip oscillator might be:

(a) 0.001%

(b) 0.05%

(c) 1.0%

(d) 10%

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55. An RTTY signal requires a bandwidth of ±3kHz. A frequency counter of accuracy 1 part per million is used to check the frequency readout of the 145MHz transmitter. How close can the signal be transmitted to the band edge to ensure transmission is within the licence conditions?

(a) 1.55kHz

(b) 2.855kHz

(c) 3.145kHz

(d) 4.45kHz

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Index

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