# Practise multiple-choice questions

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Sample examination 1, paper 2

Operating practices, procedures and theory

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1. Having established contact on a calling frequency it is good practice to:

(a) stay on the same frequency

(b) move to another frequency

(c) invite others to join in on the same frequency

(d) be objectionable to all others calling

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2. The purpose of a terrestrial repeater is to

(a) increase satellite coverage

(b) increase the range of mobile stations

(c) increase the range of fixed stations

(d) minimise contacts by pedestrian stations

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3. The Q-code for 'standby' is:

(a) QRN

(b) QRM

(c) QRS

(d) QRX

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4. COIL using the phonetic alphabet would be:

(a) Charlie, Oscar, India, Lima

(b) Charlie, Ocean, Italy, Lima

(c) Coil, Oscar, Inductance, London

(d) Charlie, Oscar, Italy, London

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5. The Band Plans should be observed because:

(a) they are mandatory

(b) they are governed by international regulations

(c) they are intended to aid operating

(d) they are only for novices

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6. It is good safety practice to:

(a) use plastic piping for earthing

(b) unearth all metal cases

(c) have no master switch

(d) supply all mains power via a master switch

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7. When calling a station it is good practice to:

(a) put your callsign first

(b) use your callsign only

(c) put the callsign of the station being called first

(d) use the callsign of the other station only

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8. In the RST code T is for:

(a) temperature of PA stage

(b) tone

(c) time of transmission

(d) transmitter type

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9. To prevent annoying other users on a band, a transmitter should always be tuned initially:

(a) on a harmonic outside the band

(b) into an antenna

(c) into a dummy load

(d) into a dipole

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10. Two 10kW resistors are connected in parallel across a 5V DC supply. The total current taken is:

(a) 50mA

(b) 0.5mA

(c) 1mA

(d) 1 A

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11. The diagram represents a trace on an oscilloscope. What is the frequency of the displayed waveform?

(a) 1kHz

(b) 5kHz

(c) 10kHz

(d) 100kHz

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12. In the diagram in question 11, what is the peak to peak value of the waveform?

(a) 1V

(b) 2V

(c) 10V

(d) 20V

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13. As the frequency rises, the reactance of an inductor:

(a) stays constant

(b) decreases

(c) increases

(d) does none of these

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14. The resonant frequency of the circuit is:

(a) 1.59155kHz

(b) 15.9155kHz

(c) 159.155kHz

(d) 1591.55kHz

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15. A power gain of 4 is equivalent to:

(a) 3dB

(b) 6dB

(c) 10dB

(d) 16dB

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16. Which of the following represents the diode in a conducting condition?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

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17. If the base potential of an NPN transistor is held at the emitter potential, the collector current will be:

(a) zero

(b) always 1A

(c) between 10mA and

(d) very high

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18. The output impedance of an emitter-follower buffer amplifier is:

(a) infinite

(b) very high

(c) zero

(d) fairly low

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19. The circuit shown below depicts:

(a) an audio amplifier

(b) an RF amplifier

(c) a mixer

(d) a BFO

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20. The circuit in question 19 operates in:

(a) Class A

(b) Class AB

(c) Class B

(d) Class C

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21. Integrated circuits that performs logic functions with binary signals are classified as:

(a) linear circuits

(b) linear amplifiers

(c) analogue mixers

(d) digital circuits

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22. The trace shown below is from a power supply. The ripple is:

(a) 1 V

(b) 3V

(c) 12V

(d) 15V

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23. The frequency difference between the wanted RF signal and the so-called second channel is:

(a) twice the third IF

(b) twice the wanted RF

(c) twice the first IF

(d) the wanted RF plus the first IF

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24. In a direct-conversion receiver, the local oscillator is:

(a) very much higher than the received signal

(b) very much lower than the received signal

(c) always at 10.7MHz

(d) very close to that of the received frequency

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25. The squelch in a receiver is operated by:

(a) the VFO

(b) the power supply

(c) the heterodyne oscillator

(d) either the IF or AF signal

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26. The effect of the AGC on receipt of a very strong incoming signal is to:

(a) reduce the VFO output

(b) reduce the gain of the RF and IF amplifiers

(c) reduce the power supply voltage

(d) reduce a filter response

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27. A high first IF allows easier filtering to prevent:

(a) power supply ripple

(b) local oscillator breakthrough

(c) second-channel interference

(d) second IF breakthrough

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28. The principal outputs from the following circuit are:

(a) 9 and 39MHz

(b) 9 and 69MHz

(c) 30 and 39MHz

(d) 39 and 69MHz

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29. In order to demodulate CW transmissions in an AM-only receiver, which of the following is required?

(a) a BFO

(b) an FM detector

(c) a crystal multiplier

(d) a morse key

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30. The coil determining the frequency of a transmitter VFO should be:

(a) air cored with no former

(b) air cored and tightly wound on a former

(c) air cored and loosely wound on a former

(d) wound on a metallic former

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31. To produce double sideband, suppressed carrier signal, which of the following should be used?

(a) a balanced mixer

(b) a crystal filter

(c) a single transistor mixer

(d) a single diode mixer

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32. The following represents a CW transmitter. Ideally, keying should be applied at:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

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33. The output power from an FM transmitter:

(a) is constant irrespective of modulation

(b) varies with modulation

(c) is zero with no modulation

(d) reduces to 50% with modulation

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34. The output amplifier of an SSB transmitter must:

(a) act as a switch

(b) be in a linear mode

(c) be in a non-linear mode

(d) act as a multiplier

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35. In the following circuit arrangement, to give an output of 145.000MHz, the crystal oscillator is at:

(a) 10.7142MHz

(b) 12.08333MHz

(c) 72.5000MHz

(d) 145.000MHz

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36. If a transmitter output impedance is 50W, for optimum power transfer the load should be:

(a) 50W

(b) 75W

(c) 100W

(d) 150W

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37. The RF spectrum required to transmit an SSB signal is:

(a) half the modulating signal bandwidth

(b) the same as the modulating signal bandwidth

(c) twice the modulating signal bandwidth

(d) zero

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38. The wavelength of a signal of 100MHz in free space is:.

(a) 30mm

(b) 0.3m

(c) 3.0m

(d) 30m

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39. In order to radiate, an electromagnetic wave must have:

(a) E field only

(b) H field only

(c) E and H field

(d) air to travel in

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40. Polarisation of an electromagnetic wave is fixed by:.

(a) the direction of the H field

(b) the direction of propagation

(c) by an anti-phase signal

(d) the orientation of the transmitting antenna

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41. The signals returned from the layers above the earth are referred to as:

(a) the ground wave

(b) the ionospheric wave

(c) the tropospheric wave

(d) the direct wave

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42. As frequency increases, the ionisation to reflect a signal back to the earth must:.

(a) decrease

(b) go to zero

(c) not change

(d) increase

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43. Fading can be caused by:.

(a) a poor antenna

(b) horizontal polarisation

(c) interaction of the sky and ground wave

(d) poor coaxial cable

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44. A transmission line is said to be perfectly matched when it is terminated by a resistance equal to:

(a) half the characteristic impedance

(b) twice the characteristic impedance

(c) an open-circuit

(d) the characteristic impedance

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45. The following antenna represents:

(a) an end-fed wire

(b) a simple dipole

(c) a cubical quad

(d) a trap dipole

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46. The addition of reflectors and a director to a folded dipole:.

(a) raises its impedance

(b) has no effect on its impedance

(c) lowers its impedance

(d) produces no directivity

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47. The typical accuracy of a moving coil meter is:.

(a) 0.03%

(b) 0.3%

(c) 3%

(d) 10%

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48. A dummy load for use at VHF should be made from:.

(a) wire-wound resistors

(b) carbon resistors

(c) metal oxide resistors

(d) electric-fire heating elements

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49. To measure DC input power to a final amplifier, various meters are used. Those necessary are:

(a) voltmeter at A, ammeter at B

(b) voltmeter at A, ammeter at C

(c) voltmeter at C, ammeter at A

(d) voltmeter at C, ammeter at B

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50. The action of the so-called 'dip oscillator' depends on:

(a) extraction of energy from the tuned circuit on test

(b) extraction of energy from the dip oscillator by circuit under test

(c) radiation from a nearby transmitter

(d) the tuned circuit on test changing the dip oscillator frequency

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51. The following represents the output of a digital frequency counter. What does the digit at X signify?

(a) hertz

(b) tens of hertz

(c) hundreds of hertz

(d) thousands of hertz

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52. The coaxial cable from an SWR meter to an antenna develops a fault so that so that no power reaches the antenna the SWR meter will read:

(a) zero

(b) 1:1

(c) high

(d) very low

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53. Which of the following would be used to examine the shape of a waveform?

(a) an oscilloscope

(b) an absorption wavemeter

(c) a digital frequency counter

(d) a dip meter

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54. For accurate frequency measurement, which of the following instruments would be used?.

(a) an absorption wavemeter

(b) an oscilloscope

(c) a moving-coil multimeter

(d) a digital frequency counter

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55. When measuring frequency in the above equipment, the probe should preferably be placed at:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

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